Author Topic: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?  (Read 19929 times)

Nick C

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Re: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?
« Reply #15 on: June 23, 2011, 06:38:58 PM »
Chet,
 When you say "I think this supports our position" are you speaking for poker players around the world, or you and DCJ001. The verbal statement should be confirmed. Her intent was to go all-in....so if she overstates the amount that's okay? Read TDA Rule #30, and be sure to read the last line. I told you how I would have handled the situation on my first reply to this post. If you don't agree with me, that's okay. It won't be the last time, I'm sure.
 If Player A lost the pot, and it was discovered that she had 17,800 (an extra 600). You are giving her back the extra 600, correct? I wonder how you would feel if she beat you out of the next hand with the 600 you gave back to her.

chet

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Re: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?
« Reply #16 on: June 23, 2011, 08:13:58 PM »
Nick:  I guess we are going to have to agree to disagree on this issue.

Spence

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Re: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?
« Reply #17 on: June 23, 2011, 08:57:33 PM »
I would say the bet is 17,200 and if there was any amount over that then it would be a blind bet on the next betting round as it had been put into the pot. The caller is only bound to put in the 17,200 as that verbal bet closed Players A's action.

DCJ001

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Re: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?
« Reply #18 on: June 23, 2011, 09:04:43 PM »
A related question:

What would you do if a player pushes their stack of chips forward, pulls his hands back, and you see that he's got one or two chips remaining on his cards as card protectors?

He said nothing when he pushed his entire stack, except for his card protectors.

Nick C

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Re: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?
« Reply #19 on: June 24, 2011, 04:15:15 AM »
Only the chips in the pot would count. If he loses the pot, he can use his card protector chips on another hand.

Stuart Murray

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Re: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?
« Reply #20 on: June 24, 2011, 04:18:46 AM »
DCJ001,

I would ask the player if their intent was to move all-in, If I am satisfied intent was there and the majority at the table is satisfied that the players intent was to move in, then I allow the complete stack to play. It's like one player picks up his stack of 16 chips, lifts then and moves them forward intending to move all-in silently, his intent is realised by all at the table, but in the process a single chip falls off the bottom of his stack, If the intent was there and the majority accepted his intent before the chip fell, I will allow the all-in (providing I do not suspect angle shooting.)

Regards
Stuart

Nick C

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Re: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?
« Reply #21 on: June 24, 2011, 04:36:53 AM »
Stuart,
 I like your answer. I like the idea of clarification as long as others have not reacted. Intent, is a valid reason, to change the call to, all-in. It is also in the best interest of the game.

Nick C

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Re: Is this an All-In Bet or Specific Amount?
« Reply #22 on: July 16, 2011, 12:54:13 PM »
Okay,
 I have to agree with everyone. I was wrong. I actually started another thread on the same subject. I have been pondering over a bunch of different scenarios ever since the summit. WSOP rule #91 has me dumbfounded. That is why  I asked, "is verbal binding, or not?" We all know that it is. If the player pushed all of her chips forward and said the incorrect amount, then I would stand by what I have been saying on this thread. After reading all of this again, I apologize for any confusion I might have caused and I want to say that DCJ001, Chet, Spence and Stuart are correct This does raise another interesting point. For those of us that always say verbal is binding, we need to be sure that the words are spoken before the chips cross the line, or hit the table.
« Last Edit: July 16, 2011, 09:27:04 PM by Nick C »