While playing at my local casino poker room, a situation occurred that reminded me a lot of the call/fold issue we're currently discussing here:
http://www.pokertda.com/forum/index.php?topic=1534.0$1/$2 cash game. Preflop action brings the pot to about $40 with only two players - seats 2 and 7. Seat 2 has about $150, seat 7 has about $400.
After the flop, seat 2 is first to act. After some thought, he says "all in". He doesn't say it very loudly. I was in seat 5 and I barely heard him. He doesn't push any chips. The dealer doesn't repeat it. Nor does the dealer put out the All In button. The prior dealer DID use the All In button.
After a while, the dealer turns to seat 7 and says the action is on him, again, without any indication of what action seat 2 took. Seat 7 acknowledges and continues to think.
Considering the lack of any chips moved forward, and the lack of indication by the dealer, it's not unrealistic for seat 7 to think seat 2 checked.
Finally, seat 7 throws out a single $25 chip. I.E. He is making a $25 bet. He then turns to get a bite - he has food on a snack tray behind him.
Since so many players toss a single chip to make a call of an all in when heads up, it would then not be unreasonable for seat 2 and the dealer to think seat 7 called the all in.
The dealer runs out the turn and river, and seat 2 turns his cards over - all while seat 7 has his back turned.
When he turns back and sees seat 2's cards, he thinks seat 2 folded. But seeing the turn and river, he is confused and asks what happened, only to be told he called the all in, etc.
"Floor!..."
What would you rule?
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Note: This is partially hypothetical. Seat 2 did go all in without ever moving chips, and the dealer never repeated it nor used the all in button. However, seat 7 eventually pushed out two stacks saying call. He DID hear that seat 2 was all in.