Bill,
Thanks - that does clarify things.
FWIW, (without being too specific), this was the subject of a question on my exam. It's the only question I got wrong (and I passed, so no blood, no foul) and I think that the rule's wording is really unclear. Rule 35, as written, really makes is sound like a single player must have both downcards exposed in order to trigger a required misdeal. I know that Robert's Rules operate as well... but the issue is certainly less than totally clear.