Author Topic: Multiple same denomination chips question.  (Read 2319 times)

W0lfster

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Multiple same denomination chips question.
« on: October 24, 2011, 07:47:04 AM »
From looking at the current TDA rules, I am in debate over whether the rule applies strictly to taking one chip away without the raise declaration = a call or multiple chips taken away. By this I mean, as the TDA rules stand. This is the TDA example:

Blinds are 200-400. A raises to 1200 total (an 800 raise), B puts out two 1000 chips without declaring raise. This is just a call because removing one 1000 chip leaves less than the amount needed to call the 1200 bet.

Is there ever a time when the rule applies to taking away more than one same denomination chip equals a call or is it just ONE chip?

I find it difficult to explain but I think you get my gist.

Thx :) 

chet

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Re: Multiple same denomination chips question.
« Reply #1 on: October 24, 2011, 09:54:13 AM »
Wolfster:

Are you trying to say that if player B puts in four (4) $500 chips you would rule this a call since removing two of the chips would be less than the amount needed to call?

The rule clearly states that "removing ONE chip leaves less than ..."

I don't see how you can try to impose a rule with clear, unambiguous conditions to a situation that has different conditions. 

Chet

W0lfster

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Re: Multiple same denomination chips question.
« Reply #2 on: October 24, 2011, 10:51:15 AM »
Thx Chet and yes that is an example of what I meant. At least I know now its one phew!

Nick C

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Re: Multiple same denomination chips question.
« Reply #3 on: October 24, 2011, 02:39:48 PM »
If that player put in four 500 chips, he couldn't take anything out if he wanted to...he raised.