raising - you make the ruling

[W0lfster]

So are you saying Jasper, for example on the flop the SB checks and without saying anything the BB bets 1 which is an underbet as the minimum is 100. Does he then have to make it 100?

[JasperToo]

yes, that is exactly what I am saying. 

By placing the single chip out the player has obligated himself to a bet,  and since he is obligated he has to make the pot right which would mean putting in the 99 it would take to bring it up to the minimum bet for this round.

[MikeB]

Great replies all of you!

Sorry Mike can you please explain what you wrote here: Say raise then push 1: push 1? but the bet is 100

Sure Wolf, what you're quoting is:
"Say raise then push 1: min raise to 200 total"

In your original illustration, if the player is facing a bet of 100 and to that he "says raise then pushes a chip worth 1 out... he must make the min. raise of 100 for a total of 200"

Mechanically, he has said raise before pushing any amount of chips out, so by saying raise he's obligated to raise. The only remaining question is what the amount of the raise is. In this case he pushes out a chip worth 1 unit. Obviously that's less than the minimum raise so by pushing out a chip value of 1 he has "locked in" his raise to the minimum amount (100) for a total bet of 200.   We want action to be binding... so by pushing out 1, he can't suddenly decide to make it 1000... pushing out anything less than the min raise after verbally declaring raise locks in a min raise.

[W0lfster]

Thanks Mike and Jasper! Hope you both come to England and sort out the TD's at our local casino LOL.

[W0lfster]

There is the question of finding yourself without enough chips to min raise, would you be forced to go all in?

[Nick C]

If you want to participate, and compete for the current pot, and you have more than the bet, but not enough to raise, what else could you do? You could fold, call, or go all-in if you don't have enough for a raise.

[W0lfster]

Yes but would you have to go all in even if you did not have the chips to min raise if you announced raise but put in 50% of the previous bet or raise?

[DCJ001]

Yes but would you have to go all in even if you did not have the chips to min raise if you announced raise but put in 50% of the previous bet or raise?

What does "50% of the previous bet or raise" have to do with anything in this question?

Please copy and paste whatever rule relates to "50% of the previous bet or raise," that applies to this question, into your response.

[W0lfster]

If you look back on page 1 youll find the answer.

[DCJ001]

If you look back on page 1 youll find the answer.

And, if you'll look at post # 20 in this thread, you'll see that the question that you posed in post # 21 in this thread, has been answered.

[W0lfster]

Fair enough I guess I didnt quite understand fully what was said.