PokerTDA

POKER TOURNAMENT RULES QUESTIONS & DISCUSSIONS => Poker TDA Rules & Procedures Questions, General => Topic started by: W0lfster on October 24, 2011, 07:47:04 AM

Title: Multiple same denomination chips question.
Post by: W0lfster on October 24, 2011, 07:47:04 AM
From looking at the current TDA rules, I am in debate over whether the rule applies strictly to taking one chip away without the raise declaration = a call or multiple chips taken away. By this I mean, as the TDA rules stand. This is the TDA example:

Blinds are 200-400. A raises to 1200 total (an 800 raise), B puts out two 1000 chips without declaring raise. This is just a call because removing one 1000 chip leaves less than the amount needed to call the 1200 bet.

Is there ever a time when the rule applies to taking away more than one same denomination chip equals a call or is it just ONE chip?

I find it difficult to explain but I think you get my gist.

Thx :) 
Title: Re: Multiple same denomination chips question.
Post by: chet on October 24, 2011, 09:54:13 AM
Wolfster:

Are you trying to say that if player B puts in four (4) $500 chips you would rule this a call since removing two of the chips would be less than the amount needed to call?

The rule clearly states that "removing ONE chip leaves less than ..."

I don't see how you can try to impose a rule with clear, unambiguous conditions to a situation that has different conditions. 

Chet
Title: Re: Multiple same denomination chips question.
Post by: W0lfster on October 24, 2011, 10:51:15 AM
Thx Chet and yes that is an example of what I meant. At least I know now its one phew!
Title: Re: Multiple same denomination chips question.
Post by: Nick C on October 24, 2011, 02:39:48 PM
If that player put in four 500 chips, he couldn't take anything out if he wanted to...he raised.